BSNL Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers 2009

BSNL Mobile SIM based Value Added Service

2009-03-22T01:36:00.000-07:00

LIST OF SERVICES PRESENTLY AVAILABLE IN THE MENU OF THE 16 K SIM CARD

S N	SERVICES	DESCRIPTION
1	News	1.National News
		2.International News
		3.Business News
		4.Entertainment
		5. Sports News
2.	Finances	1. Stocks	NSE
			BSE
			NASDAQ
		2. FOREX
3.	Entertainment	1. Games	TAMBOLA
			Other Games
		2. TV Schedule
		3. Joke
4.	Travel	1.Railways		PNR Status
				Train Schedule
				Seat availability
		2. Airlines		Nationals	JET
					IC
					Sahara
				Internationals
5.	Downloads	Logos
		Top logos
		Ring tones
		Top ring tones
		Operator logos
		Customized Logos
6.	Astrology	Horoscope
		Numerology
7.	Others	Dictionary
		Flash SMS

LIST OF SERVICES PRESENTLY AVAILABLE IN THE MENU OF THE 32 K SIM CARD

S. NO.	SERVICES		DESCRIPTION
1.	My Portal		1. Preview
			2. Download
			3. Delete
2.	News		1. Breaking
			2. National
			3. International
			4. Others	i. Business
				ii. Entertainment
				iii. Sports
				iv. Health
				v. Info-tech
3.	Finance		1. Stocks	i. NSE
				ii. BSE
				iii. NASDAQ
			2. FOREX
4.	Entertainment		1. Dating
			2. Jokes
			3. Contests	i. Poll
				ii. Cinema
				iii. Music
				iv. Cricket
				v. W Cup
				vi. Bat
				vii. Acro
				viii. Celeb
				ix. Book
				x. Astro
				xi. Travel
				xii. Comic
5.	TV Schedule		1. Movies	i. All channels
				ii. HBO
				iii. Star Movies
				iv. Hallmark
				v. Zee MGM
				vi. Zee Cinema
			2. Sports	i. Star DD. TEN Sports
				ii. ESPN
			3. Serials
6.	Travel		1. Airlines		i. Jet
					ii. Indian Airlines
					iii. Air Sahara
			2. Railways		i. PNR Status
					ii. Train
					iii. Seat Availability
7.	Downloads	1. Logos			i. Top logos
					ii. Operator logos
		2. Ring tones			i. Top Ring tones
					ii. Regnl tones
		3. Picture Messages			i. Picture Mags
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8.	Astrology	1. Horoscope			i. Aries
					ii Taurus
					iii. Gemini
					iv. Cancer
					v. Leo
					vi. Virgo
					vii. More…
		2. Numerology
		3. Shubh Kaal
		4. B'day Forecast
9.	Cricket	1. Scores
		2. News
		3. Match
10.	Others	1. Thought for day
		2. Health Tip
		3. Dictionary

BSNL JTO Exam 2009 Coaching at Trichy (Thiruchirappalli),Tamil Nadu

2009-03-11T09:39:00.000-07:00

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers Exam Coaching for JTO(Telecom),JTO(Electrical) & JTO(Civil) 2009 at “CENTURIA ACADEMY” Tiruchi.
Venue: 33/D,Marsingpet Road,Beemanagar,Trichy-620 001
Ph: 99435 22212, 99445 75511

Excellent Coaching by EXPERTS, Outstanding Coaching Materials, Regular Periodical Tests & Unitwise Tests, Full Model Tests, Test Discussions.

Demo Class on 15.03.2009 & 22.03.2009. The participants will be given free application form+ prospectus for BSNL Recruitment of Graduate Engineers Junior Telecom Officers Exam 2009.

Solved 2001, 2002, 2005& 2007 BSNL JTO Examinations Previous years Question papers with answers and detailed explanations will be distributed to all the participants.

In 2005 JTO Recruitment, No of Candidates Succeeded from our institute – 15(7 for TN Circle & 4 for Chennai Circle)

In 2007 JTO Recruitment, No of Candidates Succeeded from our institute – 22(13 for TN Circle & 8 for Chennai Circle)

In 2008 TTA Recruitment, No of Candidates Succeeded from our institute – 31(19 for TN Circle & 12 for Chennai Circle)

New Batch Starts on 3RD Week of March 2009. Limited Seats. Register Now.

For demo class appointment contact:99435 22212, 99445 75511

BSNL Junior Telecom Officers - JTO 2007 Recruitment Cut Off Marks

2009-02-17T08:35:00.000-08:00

general cutoff 53.5 marks i.e 35.66%
SC cutoff 40.25 marks i.e 26.83%
ST cutoff 35.5 marks i.e 23.66 %
OBC cutoff 42 marks i.e 28 %

there were not sufficient qualified candidates hence 3141 results declared

BSNL GE-JTO 2005 Recruitment Examination Question Papers

2009-02-16T10:26:00.001-08:00

When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases

When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter

When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium

When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4

For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –
a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons

The location of lighting arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

Telemetering is a method of –
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None

When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be -
a) 2W
b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W

As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant

11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD

When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –

a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower

In a JFET gates are always –
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none

The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction

An SCR conducts appreciable current when –
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode

Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor

An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V

When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –
a) 5W
b) 10 W
c) 15 W
d) 20 W

Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21

When the transmission parameters of the following network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3 then the value of Zin is –
a) 3W
b) 4W

While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are –
a) replaced by opens
b) replaced by ’shorts’
c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources
d) converted into equivalent voltage sources

Maxwell’s loop current method of solving electrical networks –
a) uses branch currents
b) utilizes kirchhoff’s voltage law
c) is confined to single-loop circuits
d) is a network reduction method

A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 – j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
a)(30 + j40 ) ohms
b)( 30 – j40 ) ohms
c)(50 + j40 ) ohms
d)(50 – j40 ) ohms

For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be-
a) Elliptically polarized
b) Linearly polarized
c) Right circularly polarized
d) Left circularly polarized

A yagi antenna has a driven antenna-
a) Only
b) With a reflector
c) With one or more directors
d) With a reflector and one or more directors

The number of lobes on each side of a 3l resonant antenna is –
a) 3
b) 6
c) 2
d) 1

The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as -
Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is -
a) 72 W
b) 144W
c) 288 W
d) 216W

When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by -
a)100%
b)150 %
c)50%
d)0%

On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest -
a) During morning hours
b) Around mid-day
c) During nights
d) In the afternoon

TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR -
a) System B
b) System I
c) System M
d) System X

For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 mA meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to –
a) 1k ohm/volt can be used
b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used
c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used
d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used

In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is –
a) Electrical conduction
b) Electrical – capacitive
c) Absorption of radiation
d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity

The flow rate of electrically conducting liquid without any suspended particle cannot be measured by –
a) turbine flow meters
b) electromagnetic flow meters
c) ultrasonic flow meters
d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters

The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is –
a) an incremental encoder
b) an abosolute encoder
c) LVDT
d) a strain gauge

When variable reluctance type tachometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be–
a) 4800 rpm
b) 5400 rpm
c) 6000 rpm
d) 7200 rpm.

41. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to –
a) 1.732 V
b) 1.0 V
c) 0.7746 V
d) 0.5V

One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT is-
a) strain gauge
b) pitot tube
c) Bourden tube
d) Rotameter

It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be –
a) chromel - constantan
b) Iron - constantan
c) chromel - alumel
d) platinum- rhodium

In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI is-
a) f
b) 2 f
c) f/2
d) 3 f

Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit
a) Type A chopper
b) Type B chopper
c) Type C chopper
d) Type D chopper

Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated with-
a) peak point
b) valley point
c) any point between peak and valley
d) after the valley point

Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA-
a) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR
b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR
c) B may operate as a transistor
d) none of the above

In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-
a) zero
b) source voltage
c) source voltage minus the inductance drop
d) average value of the conducting phase voltages

Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconverters-
a) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation
b) step up CC requires no forced commutation
c) load commutated CC works on line commutation
d) none of the above

In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it gives-
a) Large voltage gain
b) Low output impedance
c) Large isolation between the input and the output
d) None of the above

Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because-
a) it can withstand high temperature
b) ensures low PIV of the diodes
c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter
d) reduces ripple content

An amplifier of class A is that in which -
a) Base is biased to cut – off
b) Ic flows most of the time
c) Ie flows all the time
d) Vc often raises to Vcc

A transistor is in active region when-
a) IB = bIC
b) IC=bIB
c) IC=IE
d) IC=IB

For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it provides-
a) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch
b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch
c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch
d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch

A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will be-
a) 100 W
b) 99.01 W
c) 5m W
d) 101kW

An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of -
a) 110 MHz
b) 112 Hz
c) 114 MHz
d) 120 MHz

In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will become-
a) OV
b) VCC – IBRB
c) Equal to VCC
d) None of the above

See the circuit shown and choose the correct option –
a) Only red will glow
b) Only green will glow
c) Both red and green will glow
d) Neither red nor green will glow

A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be –
a) 0.1A
b) 0.5A
c) 1.0A
d) 10.0A

A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate –
a) storage time
b) turn – off time
c) turn – on time
d) delay time

The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is –
a) (A + B)C + DE
b) AB + C(D + E)
c) (A + B)C + D + E
d) (AB + C) . DE

Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is –
a) solid iron motor
b) squirrel cage rotor
c) drag cup rotor
d) both b and c

Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its –
a) higher bandwidth
b) higher output
c) higher frequency
d) higher gain

The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for –
a) addition
b) subtraction
c) both addition and subtraction
d) multiplication

The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is –
A lag compensator is basically a –
a) high pass filter
b) band pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) band elimination filter

Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig is-
The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is
Mark the correct statement regarding this system
1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4
2. The system type one.
3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below- Codes
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3

If the rotor’s resistance and reactant’s are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, then-
In a PID controllers the transfer function G(s) is-
Transfer function can be approximated by the system- The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximately-
a) 5850 kHz
b) 585 kHz
c) 5850 Hz
d) 585 Hz

An open loop transfer function is given by Its – loci will be-
The output signals amplitudes for 1’s and 0’s in an ADM transmission systems are –
a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed
b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable
c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable
d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed

Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart –
a) Because of atmospheric attenuation
b) Because of Output tube power limitations
c) Because of the earth’s curvature
d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive

The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are called-
a) line amplifier
b) equalizing amplifiers
c) compradors
d) repeaters.

Diversity reception in used to-
a) increase receiver sensitivity
b) improve receiver selectivity
c) overcome degrading effect of fading
d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning

Mark out transferred electron device in the following-
a) BARITT dived
b) IMPATT dived
c) Gunn divde
d) Step recovery diode

In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are -
a) syne
b) video
c) sweep
d) sound

The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in the-
a) mains transformer
b) vertical output stage
c) horizontal output stage
d) horizontal deflection oscillator

In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2 , minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses) The frquency range for satellite broad casting is –
a) 30 MHz – 300MHz
b) 30 MHz – 3 GHz
c) 3 GHz – 30 GHz
d) 30 GHz – 300 GHz

Iris is used to –
a) Over come power loss
b) Over come bending effect
c) Over come mismatch error
d) Over come twist effect

In schotty barrier diode current flows because of –
a) Majority carriers
b) Minority carriers
c) Majority and minority carriers
d) None

Which antennas are used in microwave communication –
a) long wave antennas
b) Rhombic antennas
c) Parabolaidal antennas
d) All of above

Among translator & time of sight system capacity –
a) Of translator is more
b) Of line of sight is more
c) Having equal capacity
d) No relation such as

No of T-state required for memory read or write operation-
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

In data transfer operation which flag get affected-
a) 3140 flog.
b) carry flog
c) sign flog.
d) none

The storage and retrieval of data on stacks should follow sequence-
a) last in first out
b) first in first out
c) random in random out
d) none

While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearing-
a) each instruction
b) after interval of two instruction
c) after a subroutine
d) at the end of program.

93. In which error check technique of data communication 2’s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with data-
a) Even parity
b) odd parity
c) check scans
d) cyclic redundancy

Program execution hierarchy decides which operator-
a) is most important
b) is used first
c) is fastest
d) operators on largest number

(375)10 = (—-)8
a) 550
b) 557
c) 567
d) 577

To obtain 2048 8 memory using 128 8 memory chip how many IC required-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.-
a) 10001
b) 01110
c)00111
d) 11100

Is the Universal logic gate-
a) AND
b) OR
c) NAND
d) X-OR

A monostable state in multivibrator means-
a) which returns itself to its single stable state
b) the state used only once in circuit
c) the state of circuit can not get changed
d) the state of circuit always changing

For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred -
a) T FF
b) SR FF
c) D FF
d) JKFF

His handwriting was not —– so I could not read his note –
a) attractive
b) eligible
c) clear
d) legible

They started to —– people into the theatre only at six -
a) enter
b) admit
c) follow
d) accept

I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word).
a) ending
b) ordinary
c) durable
d) cheap

Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘evident’-
a) doubtful
b) unimportant
c) disagreed
d) understood

I expressed by disagreement —— him on that issue-
a) between
b) with
c) about
d) for

‘Sugarbowl’ of the world is -
a) India
b) Cuba
c) Brazil
d) USA

Palk strait separates-
a) India and Srilanka
b) India and Burma
c) Britain and France
d) Malaysia and Sumatra

The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element are-
a) 1
b) 5
c) 2
d) 10

Tides in the sea are caused by-
a) Effect of sun
b) Effect of moon
c) combined effect of moon and sun
d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces

The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is
a) 140
b) 200
c) 150
d) 100

Aswan Dam is located in-
a) Egypt
b) Libya
c) Sudan
d) Iran

Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of -
a) Rajasthan
b) Madhya Pradesh
c)Uttar Pradesh
d) Maharashtra

Dry ice is-
a) Frozen carbon monoxide
b) Frozen carbon dioxide
c) Frozen ammonia
d) None of these

East flower river of India is -
a) Cauvery
b) sone
c) Narmada
d) Tapti

The total length of the great wall of China is –
a) 1,400 miles
b) 1,500 miles
c) 1,300 miles
d) 1,400 miles

Deficiency of vitamin C may result in-
a) beriberi
b) night blindness
c) dermatitis
d) Scurvy

Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a
period of –
a) 11 months
b) 2 years
c) 18 months
d) 15 months

Indian local time is based on-
a) 800 E longitude
b) E longitude
c) 1100 E longitude
d) 250 E longitude

The two days Shiv Shena Mahashivir of 2002 started at Shirdi on –
a) 9th April 2002
b) 10th April 2002
c) 8th April 2002
d) 11th April 2002
Which one is a good preservative of food?
a) Spirit
b) Formaldehyde
c) Sugar

BSNL GE-JTO 2008 Recruitment Examination Question Papers

2009-02-16T10:22:00.001-08:00

BSNL GE-JTO 2007 Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - V
1. Reactive current through the inductive load produces-
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Super magnetic field
d) None

2. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) each of them increases
b) each of them decreases
c) copper increases and germanium decreases
d) copper decreases and germanium increases

3. A capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5 cm2 each separated by an air gap of 2mm. Displacement sensitivity in pF /cm due to gap change would be -
a) 11.1
b) 44.2
c) 52.3
d) 66.3

4. The critical angle in degrees, for an electromagnetic wave passing from Quartz (m = m0, Î=4Îo) into air is-
a) 15
b)30
c)45
d)90

5. When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = -1; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4

6. A capacitor used for power factor correction in single- phase circuit decreases –
a) the power factor
b) the line current
c) Both the line current and the power factor
d) the line current and increases power factor

7. The unit of inductance is –
a) ohm
b) inductive reactance
c) inducta
d) Henry

8. Which type of by-pass capacitor works best at high frequencies –
a) electrolytic
b) mica
c) ceramic
d) plexiglass

9. The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is –
a) 600 W
b) 500 W
c) 75 W
d) none

10. Telemetering is a method of –
a) counting pulses, sent over long distances
b) transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None

11. In an unbiased P-N junction thickness of depletion layer is of the order of –
a) 0.005 mm
b) 0.5 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 10-10 m

12. One of the semiconductor device, which behaves like two SCRs is–
a) UJT
b) triac
c) JFET
d) MOSFET

13. The following, which is not an advantage of semiconductor strain gauges as compared to conventional strain gauges, is –
a) excellent hysterists characteristics
b) least sensitive to temperature changes
c) high fatigue life
d) smaller size

14. The fundamental ripple frequency of a half wave 3F rectifier with a 3F supply of frequency 50 Hz is –
a)150 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) 250 Hz.

15. For an FR biased PNP transistor –
a) base is negative with respect to emitter
b) collector is positive with respect to emitter
c) collector is a little more positive than base
d) base is a little less positive with respect to emitter than collector

16. With normal operation of a JFET one can get IDss –
a) the maximum drain current
b) the minimum drain current
c) normal drain current
d) none

17. An SCR is a semiconductor device made up of –
a) Four N type layers
b) Two P types and three N type layers
c) Two P type and two N type layers
d) Three P type and one N type layers

18. For a UJT, if R1 = resistance from emitter to base 1, R2 = resistance from emitter to the base 2 and RBB = R1 + R2 then the intrinsic stand off ratio (h) is –
a)
b)
c)
d)
BSNL Examination Paper / recruitment/ placement paper previous years / free download here..
19. As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) becomes zero
b) abruptly decreases
c) abruptly increases
d) remains constant

20. When the energy gap of a semiconductor is 1.1eV then it would be –
a) opaque to the visible light
b) transparent to the visible light
c) transparent to the infrared radiation
d) opaque to the infrared radiation

21. The equivalent capacitance across ab will be –
d) 0

22. In the following fig. the power dissipated is maximum when the value of Rx is –
a) 33.4 K
b) 17.6 K
c) 10 K
d) 5 K

23. The transfer function of a low pass RC network is –

24. The total capacitance across points 'a' and 'b' in the given figure is –
a) 1.66 mF
b) 2.66 mF
c) 3.5 mF
d) 4.5 mF

25. .The load resistance needed to extract maximum power from the following circuit is –
a) 2W
b) 9W
c) 6W
d) 18W

26. Which one of the following conditions for z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) z11 = z22
b) z12z21 = z11z22
c) z11z12 = z22z21
d) z12 = z21

27. In the network shown, the switch is opened at t = 0. Prior to that, the network was in the steady state, Vs(t) at t = 0 is –
a) 0
b) 5V
c) 10V
d) 15V

28. Which of the following statements are correct –
1. Tellegen's theorem is applicable to any lumped network
2. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to linear bilateral networks.
3. Thevenin's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.
4. Norton's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4

29. Which one of the following transfer functions represents the critically damped system ?

30. When the respective coil impedance of the circuit shown in the fig. is are Z1 = (5 + j8)W and Z2=(3+j8) then the input impedance of the circuit will be –
a) (8 + 16j)W
b) (2 + j0)W
c) (15 + 64j)W
d) (8 + 0j)W

31. One of the following statement which is not correct -
a) In case of an antenna, the radiation resistance and loss resistance are not two different quantities.
b) The loss resistance includes loss by eddy currents, improper earth connections, insulation leakages etc) but not I2R losses
c) Radiation resistance varies directly as square root of the frequency
d) None of the above

32. Ultraviolet radiation emitted when electron jumps from an outer stationary orbit to -.
a) first stationary orbit
b) second stationary orbit
c) third stationary orbit
d) fourth stationary orbit

33. When the signal is propogated in a waveguide which has a full wave of electric intensity change between the two farther walls and no component of the electric field in the direction of propogation then the mode is –
a) TE11
b) TE10
c) TM22
d) TE20

34. Consider the following statements pertaining to parabolic antenna -
1.It is commonly used above 1GHz
2. It get’s circularly polarized
3. It’s radiation pattern is highly directional
4. It’s radiation pattern is cardiod
of these statements-
a) 1,2 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
d) 2 and 4 are correct
BSNL Recruit ment Exam latest paper last years download here.. answer key coming soon!
35. When a vertical dipole antenna is used in conjunction with a loop antenna for direction finding, then the field pattern obtained will be-

36. When one end of a loss less transmission line of length 3/8 l and characteristic impedance R0 is short circuited and the other end is terminated in Ro then the impedance at l/8 away from the end terminated in R0 is-
a) Zero
b) R0
c) R0/2
d) Infinite

37. For transmission of wave from a dielectric permittivity Î1 into dielectric medium of lower permittivity Î2 (Î1 > Î2) the critical angle of incidence Qc ( relative to the interface ) is given by -

38. A transmission line has primary constants R, L, G and C and secondary constants Z0 and g (= a + jb) if the line is loss less then .

39. The intrinsic impedance of a free space is-

40. One of the following which is a low gain but omni directional antenna is-
a) discone
b) log-periodic
c) loop
d) helical

41. Electronic voltmeters have –
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) zero input impedance
d) none

42. Which of the following statement about impulse voltage is true ?
a) An impulse voltage is an unidirectional voltage.
b) In chopped impulse voltage, flashover does not occur.
c) Time taken to rise is exactly equal to the time taken to fall.
d) RMS value of impulse voltage is always less than 50% of average value.

43. The precision of an instrument indicates its ability to reproduce a certain reading with a given –
a) drift
b) resolution
c) shift.
d) consistency

44. In heterodyne digital conductor, the input signal is heterodyned to a –
a) higher frequency
b) lower frequency
c) both a and b)
d) none

45. In a digital measuring device, if the input electrical signal is in the frequency range dc to fmax Hz, then it must be sampled at a rate of –
a) fmax times/sec
b) fmax times/ses
c) every 2fmax/sec
d) 2 fmax times/sec .

46. Moving Iron intruments measures the rms value of –
a) a direct quantity
b) an alternating quantity
c) a virtual quantity.
d) none.

47. One of the following intruments which is used almost exclusively to measure radio frequency current is-
a) Moving coil meter
b) Rectifier-type moving coil meter
c) Iron-vane meter
d) Thermocouple meter.

48. A good ohmic contact on a p- type semiconductor chip is formed by introducing –
a) gold as an impurity below the contact
b) a high concentration of donors below the contract
c) a high concentration of acceptors below the contact
d) a thin insulator layer between the metal and semiconductor.

49. The use of thermocouple meters for ac measurement leads to a meterscale which is –
a) linear
b) square law
c) logarithmic
d) exponential

50. If low pressure of the order of 10-6mm of Hg is to be measure then the instrument of choice would be-
a) compound pressure gauge
b) thermocouple vacuum gauge
c) pirani gauge
d) ionization type vacuum gauge

51.
In the given circuit if the power dissipated in the 6W resister is zero then V is –
a)
b)
c)
d)
52. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given figure. The resistor will be non inductive if –
a)
b)
c)
d)

53. SCR turns OFF from conducting state to blocking state on –
a) reducing gate current
b) reversing gate voltage
c) reducing anode current below holding current value
d) applying ac to the gate

54. Static V-I characteristics of an SCR with different gate drives applied to the gate are indicated by-
a) I92 > I 91 > I 90
b) V92 > V91 > V90
c) P92 > P91 > P90
d) either a or b

55. Each diode of a 3 phase, 6-pulse bridge diode rectifier conducts for-
a) 60o
b) 1200
c) 1800
d) 900

56. A load, consisting of R = 10W and wL = 10W is being fed from 230 V, 50 Hz source through a 1 phase voltage controller. For a firing angle delay of 300 , the rms value of load current would be-
a) 23 A

57. The total number of SCRs conducting simultaneously in a 3 phase full converter with overlap considered has the sequence of-
a) 3,3, 22
b) 3, 3, 3, 2
c) 3, 2, 3, 2
d) 2, 2, 2, 3

58. A single phase voltage controller, using two SCRs in antiparallel is found to be operating as a controlled rectifier. This is because
a) load is R and pulse gating is used
b) load is R and high frquendy carrier gating is used
c) load is RL and pulse gating is used
d) load is RL and continuous gating is used

59. The inverse Fourier Transform of

60. In a GTO anode current begins to fall when gate current-
a) is negative peak at time t = 0
b) is negative peak at t = shortage period ts
c) just begins to become negative at t = 0
d) is negative peak at t = (ts + fall time)

61. Power amplifiers and Audio use
a) Ferrite core
b) Air core
c) Solid iron core
d) Laminated iron core

62. The amplifiers which are inserted at intervals amplify the signal and compensate for transmission less on the cable are called-
a) Line amplifiers
b) Equalizing amplifiers
c) Rep eaters
d) Compandors

63. A solid state device named TRIAC acts as a ----- switch
a) 3 terminal unidirectional
b) 2 terminal unidirectional
c) 3 terminal bi-directional
d) 2 terminal bi-directional

64. Identify the fastest logic circuit when speed of operation is concerned-
a) TTL
b) RTL
c) DTL
d) ATL

65. An amplifier CE is characterized by-
a) Low voltage gain
b) Moderate power gain
c) Very high output impedance
d) Signal phase reversal

66. The standard symbol for EX-OR gate is –
a) b)
c) d)

67. Boolean algebra is based on –
a) numbers
b) logic
c) truth
d) symbols

68. Magnetic amplifiers are used for –
a) voltage amplification
b) power amplification
c) current amplification
d) frequency amplification

69. Number of resistors required for an N bit D/A converter in R-2R ladder D/A converter is-
a) 4N
b) 1N
c) 3N
d) 2N

70. 'Not allowed' condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
a) s = 0, R = 0
b) s = 1, R = 1
c) s = 0, R = 1
d) s = 1, R = 0
71. . In a PID controlles the transfer function G(s) is

72. A time invariant linear stable system is forced with an input x(t) = A sin wt under steady state conditions, the output Y(t) of the system will be –
a) A sin (wt + f), where f = tan-1G(jw)
b) A G (jw) A sin [wt + G(jw)]
c) G (jw) A sin [2 wt + G (jw)]
d) G (jw) A sin [wt + G (jw)]
x(t)-------G(s)---------y(t)

73. Mark the wrong statement for two phase servo motor –
a) The rotor diameter is small
b) The rotor resistance is low
c) The applied voltages are seldom balanced
d) The torque speed characterstic are linear.

74. The gain phase plot of open loop transfer function of four different systems labelled A, B, C, and D
are shown in the figure. The correct sequence of the increasing order of stability of the four systems will be-
a) A, B, C, D
b) D, C, B, A
c) B, A, D, C,
d) B, C, D, A

75. A unity feedback system has G(S) = . In the loot locus, the break away point occurs between
a) S = 0 and –1
b) S = -1 and ¥
c) S = -1 and –2
d) S =-2 and – ¥
BSNL Recruitment Question Paper free - previous years 2005 2006 2007 2008 download here. JTO Placement paper for BSNL .
76. Twice in a year a few minute disturbance occurs in space communication during sun-blinding when --- are in line
a) Sun and satellite
b) Sun and earth station
c) Satellite and earth station
d) Sun, satellite and earth station

77. The traffic handling capacity of an Earth station on the up link depends on-
a) It’s EIRP
b) Satellite antenna gain
c) Noise associated with the satellite
d) All of the above

78. A supergroup pilot is –
a) applied at each multiplexing bay
b) used to regulate the gain of individual repeaters
c) applied at each adjustable equalizer
d) fed in at a GTE

79. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
a) Ö2
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

80. In the given circuit the capacitor C is almost shorted for the frequency range of interest of the input signal . Under this condition the voltage gain of the amplifier will be-
hfe = 100 hie = 1K –
a) 0.33
b) 0.5
c) 0.66
d) 1

81. Microwave frequency bond is-
a) 30 MHz –300 MHz
b) 300 MHz –3 GHz
c) 300 MHz –10 GHz
d) 300 MHz – 30 GHz

82. Directional couplers are designed as-
a) coupler of two-wave guide
b) measuring instrument to measure power of signal through wave-guide
c) director to the signal flow
d) None of the above

83. Gyrator has a -
a) Phase difference of 1800 for transmission from port 1 to port 2 & no phase shift for transmission from port 2 to port 1
b) Phase difference of 1800 for transmission from port 1 to port 2 & no phase shift for transmission from port 1 to port 2
c)1800 phase difference for transmission from either port
d) 00 Phase difference for transmission from either port

84. In klyrtron tube for getting oscillations-
a) electron beam travels & RF field remains stationary
b) both electron beam & RF field travels in same direction
c) both electron & RF field remains stationary
d) RF field travels & electron beam remains stationary

85. The most noisy among below is –
a) IMPATT diode
b) Klyrtron
c) GUNN diode
d) TWT amplifier

86. The GUNN mode of gunn effect oscillator is also called as –
a) Domain mode
b) Delayed domain mode
c) Quenched domain mode
d) LSA mode

87. The total noise voltage across series ckt is –
a)
b)
c)
d)

88. The vertical height of F1 layer in ionospheric layer is –
a) 180 km
b) 70 km
c) 110 km
d) 400 km

89. 8085 mP contains instruction in instruction set-
a) 64
b) 74
c) 246
d) 256

90. If the clock freq. is 5 MHz how much time is required to execute on instruction 18 T-states-
a) 3.6 m sec)
b) 36 m sec)
c) 36 m sec)
d) 36 sec)

91. In 8085 mP a word is equal to-
a) 8 bit
b) 16 bit
c) 32 bit
d) 64 bit

92. The instruction used to set continuous loops-
a) JC
b) JMP
c) JP
d) JPE

93. What happen when RET instruction executed -
a) data retrieved from stock to register
b) data from register saved on the stock
c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock.
d)16 bit address from stock retrieved

94. DMA is a process-
a) Interrupt data transfer.
b) high speed data transfer under control of microprocessor
c) high speed data transfer under control of DMA controller.
d) Interrupt data read

95. No. of boolean function can be generated from 3 variables-
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 256

96. The data storage in dynamic RAM is cell of-
a) capacitance
b) transistor
c) flip flop
d) transistor acting as capacitor

97. What is 9’s complement of 23-
a) 76
b) 77
c) 78
d) 79

98. An array is collection of -
a) different data type scattered throughout memory
b) same data type scattered throughout memory
c) same data type placed next to each other in memory
d) different data type placed next to each other in memory

99. While reading from the memory location for active high i/p pins-
a) Read and chip select i/p must be at logical 0 level
b) Read at 0 and chip select at logical 1 level
c) Read at 1 and chip select at logical 0 level
d) Read and chip select i/p must be at logical 1 level
BSNL JTO Recruitment / Placement Question Paper previous years 2007 2008 free download online here. solutions coming soon..
100. When all i/p bits of AND gate are zero then o/p will be-
a) 0
b) 1
c) un-defined
d) none

101. The fan out comparison between TTL logic and DRL logic is
a) Both logic having higher fan out
b) TTL logic having higher fan out than DRL logic
c) TTL logic having lower fan out than DRL logic
d) Both logic having lower fan out

102. I was asked to perform the task of numbering points we had scored –
a) sad
b) said
c) tallow
d) strenous
103. The taste is rancid as the rank is –
a) odour
b) look
c) smell
d) sound
104. Troupe is a group of performers in a –
a) play
b) circus
c) cinema
d) orchestra
105. Complete the sentence with correct alternative
He is --- well today-
a) no
b) none
c) not
d) nought
106. Fritter is –
a) sour
b) chafe
c) dissipate
d) cancel

107. The sun rays falls vertically on-
a) Tropics
b) Doldrums
c) Poles
d) Equator

108. In India ‘Lotus’ award is given in the field of-
a) Literature
b) Films
c) Sports
d) Social Service

109. The Chauri-Chaura incident is related to
a) A major offensive by underground revolutionaries
b) Large scale looting of government property by congress worker
c) Massive police firing on unarmed satyagrahis
d) the burning of a police post by a mob

110. Dadamuni Ashok Kumar deceased on-
a) 10 December 2001
b) 20 December 2001
c) 10 January 2001
d) 20 January 2001

111. The first batsman in Test history to aggregate 350 plus runs in a Test Match is-
a) Sanath Jaisurya
b) Brian Lara
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Steve Waugh

112. Antibiotics which are effective against more than one type of bacteria are known as-
a) Surya drugs
b) Multibiotics
c) Broad-spectrum
d) Anti metabodies

113. The books Sushrut Sanhita and Charak S anhita are related to-
a) Hindu rituals
b) Interpretation of Puranas
c) Interpretation of Vedas
d) Ayurvedic system of medicine

114. An enzyme is a protein that -
a) Is used by the body as a food
b) Acts as an organic catalyst
c) Forms the hair and nails of the body
d) Make up the membranes of the cells

115. Atal Behari Vajpayee was Prime Minister for 13 days in-
a) May 1996
b) June 1997
c) September 1996
d) July 2000

116. RBI lowers the deposit rates ceiling for non banking finance companies from 14 percent to – percent per annum-
a) 12.5
b) 11.5
c) 10.5
d) 9.5

117. Booker prize is won in the field of -
a) Science
b) Medicine
c) Fiction writing
d) Adventure

118. Leprosy is caused by-
a) Bacterium
b) Virus
c) Protozoa
d) Helminthes

119. . Zojila is a pass between-
a) Kashmir valley and Ladakh
b) Lahaul valley and Spiti
c) Chumbi valley and Sikkim
d) Aurnachal Pradesh and Tibet

120. Deforestation results in-
1. Flora destruction
2. Fauna destruction
3. Ecological misbalance
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3

Syllabus for the Recruitment of BSNL Junior Telecom Officers (JTO) 2009

2009-02-16T10:16:00.000-08:00

For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers, an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:

SCHEME

A. Engineering Stream Section - I

B. Engineering Stream Section - II

C. General Ability Test Section - III

1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Degree Examination of an Indian University.

2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in general ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Graduate.

3. The syllabus for engineering stream papers will be as given below.

SYLLABUS
SECTION - I
1. Materials and components

Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.

2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs

Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.

3. Network theory

Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transcient and steady state sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore’s and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.

4. Electromagnetic Theory

Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.

5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation

Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.

6. Power Electronics

Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors.

AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.

Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

SECTION-II

1. Analog Electronic Circuits

Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.

2. Digital Electronic Circuits

Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Compartor; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A convertors. Semiconductor memories.

3. Control Systems

Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.

4. Communication systems

Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalisation; Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite communication.

5. Microwave Engineering

Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propogation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.

6. Computer Engineering

Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.

7. Microprocessors

Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.

SECTION-III

General ability test
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.

ANNEXURE-C

Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of

Engineer Junior Telecom Officers(Civil)

For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officer(Civil), an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:

SCHEME

A. Civil Engineering Stream Section - I : 50 questions

B. Civil Engineering Stream Section - II : 50 questions

C. General Ability Test Section - III : 20 questions

1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Degree Examination of Indian University.

2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in general ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Graduate.

3. The syllabus for Civil Engineering stream paper will be as given below.

SYLLABUS:

SECTION-I - CIVIL ENGINEERING STREAM

1. BUILDING MATERIAL:

Timber: Different types and species of structural timber, density-moisture relationship, strength in different directions, defects, influence of defects on permissible stress, preservation, dry and wet rots, plywood, codal provision for design.

Bricks: Types, Indian standard classification, absorption, saturation factor, strength in masonry, influence of mortar strength and masonary strength.

Cement: Compounds, different types, setting times, strength.

Cement Mortar: Ingredients, proportions, water demands, mortar for plastering and masonry.

Concrete: Importance of W/C ratio, strength, ingredients including admixtures, workability, testing, elasticity, non-destructive testing mix design method.

2. SOLID MECHANICS

Elastic constants, stress, plane stress, Mohr’s circle of stress, strains, plain strain, Mohr’s circle of strain, combined stress. Elastic theories of Failure, simple and shear bending, Torsion of circular and rectangular section and simple members.

3. STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS

Analysis of determinate structures- different methods including graphical methods. Analysis of indeterminate skeletal frames- moment distribution, slope deflection, stiffness and force methods, energy methods. Muller-Breslau principal and application. Plastic analysis of indeterminate beams and simple frames-shape factors.

4. DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES

Principle of working stress method. Design of connections of simple members. Built up sections and frames. Design of Industrial roofs. Principles of ultimate load design. Design of members and frames.

5. DESIGN OF CONCRETE AND MASONRY STRUCTURES.

Limit state design for bending, shear, axial compression and combined forces, Codal provisions for slabs, beams, walls and footings. Working stress method of design of R.C. members.

Principles of prestressed concrete design, material, method of prestressing losses. Design of simple members and determinates structures. Introductions to prestressing of indeterminate structures.

Design of brick masonary as per I.S. codes.

6. CONSTRUCTION PRACTICE, PLANNING AND MANAGEMENT.

Concreting Equipment:

Weight batcher, Mixer, vibrator, batching plant, concrete pump.

Cranes, hoists, lifting equipment.

Earthwork Equipment:

Power shovel, hoe, dozer, dumper, trailers and tractors, rollers, sheep foot rollers, pumps.

Construction, planning and Management:

Bar chart, linked bar chart, work break down structures, Activity-on-arrow diagrams. Critical path, probabilistic activity durations; Event-based networks.

PERT network: Time-cost study, crashing; Resource allocation.

SECTION- II - CIVIL ENGINEERING STREAM

1. (a) FLUID MECHANICS, OPEN CHANNEL, PIPE FLOW:

Fluid properties, pressure, thrust, Buoyancy, Flow Kinematics, integration, of flow equation, Flow measurement, Relative motion, Moment of momentum, Viscosity, Boundary layer and control, Drag, Lift, Dimensional analysis, Modeling, Cavitations, Flow oscillations, Momentum and Energy principles, in open cannel flow, Flow control, Hydraulic jump, Flow section and properties, Normal flow, Gradually varied flow, Flow development and losses in pipe flows, Measurements, Siphons, Surges and Water hammer, Delivery of Power Pipe networks.

(b) HYDRAULIC MACHINES AND HYDROPOWER

Centrifugal pumps, performance parameters, scaling, pumps in parallel, Reciprocating pumps, air vessels, performance parameters;

2. (a) HYDROLOGY:

Hydrological cycle, precipitation and related data analysis, PMP, unit and synthetic hydrographs, Evaporation and transpiration, floods and their management, PMG, Streams and their gauging, .River morphology. Rooting of floods, Capacity of reservoirs.

(b) WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING:

Water resources of the globe: Multipurpose uses of Water, Soil Plant water relationships, irrigation systems, water demand assessment, Storage and their yields, ground water yield and well Hydraulics, Water logging, drainage design, Irrigation revenue, Design of rigid boundary canals, Lacey’ and Tractive force concepts in canal design, lining of canals; Sediment transport in canals; Non-Overflow and overflow sections of gravity dams and their design, Energy dissipaters and tail water rating, Design of head works, distribution work, falls, cross-drainage work, outlets, River training.

ENVIRONMENT ENGINEERING

3. (a)WATER SUPPLY ENGINEERING.

Sources of supply, yield, design of intakes and conductors, Estimation of demand, Water quality standards, Control of water born diseases. Primary and secondary treatment, detailing and maintenance of treatment units. Conveyance and distribution systems of treated water, leakage and control, Rural water supply, Institutional and Industrial water supply.

(b) WASTE WATER ENGINEERING

Urban rain water disposal, system of sewage collection and disposal, Design of sewers and sewerages systems, pumping, Characteristic of sewage and its treatment, Disposal of products of sewage treatment, stream flow rejuvenation, Institutional and industrial sewage management, plumbing system, Rural and semi-urban sanitation.

( c) SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT

Sources, classification, collection and disposal, Design and Management of landfills.

(d) AIR AND NOISE POLLUTION AND ECOLOGY.

Sources and effects of air pollution, monitoring of Air pollution, Noise-pollution and standards; Ecological Chain and balance, Environmental assessment.

4. (a)SOIL MECHANICS

Properties of soils, classification and interrelationship, Compaction behavior, method of compaction and their choice, Permeability and seepage, flow nets, Inverter filters, Compressibility and consolidation ,shearing resistance, stresses and failure, SO testing in laboratory and in-situ, Stress path and applications, Earth pressure theories, stress distribution in soil, soil exploration, samplers, load tests ,penetration tests.

(b) FOUNDATION ENGINEERING

Type of foundations, Selection criteria, bearing capacity, settlement, laboratory and field test, Types of piles and their design and layout, Foundations on expansive soils, swelling and it prevention , foundation on swelling soils.

5. (a) SURVEYING

Classification of surveys, scales, accuracy, Measurement of distances-direct and indirect methods, optical and electronic devices, Measurement of directions, prismatic compass, local attraction, Theodolites-types Measurment of elevations, Spirit and trigonometric leveling, Relief representation,Contours,Digital elevation modeling concept, Establishment of control by triangulations and traversing measurements and adjustment of observations, computation of coordinates, Field astronomy, concept of global positioning system, Map preparation by plane tabling and by photogrammetry, Remote sensing concepts, map substitutes.

(b) TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING

Planning of highway systems, alignment and geometric design, horizontal and vertical curves, grade separation, Materials and construction methods for different surfaces and maintenance, Principles of pavement design, Drainage.

Traffic surveys, intersections, signalling, Mass transit systems, accessibility, networking.

Planning of railway systems, terminology and designs, relating to gauge, track controls, transits, rolling stock, tractive power and track modernization, Maintenance Appurtenant works, Containerisation.

SECTION-III - GENERAL ABILITY TEST

The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of general English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Tele Communications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.

ANNEXURE-D

Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers(Electrical) Examination - 2008

SCHEME

For direct recruitment of JTOs(Electrical), an objective type examination of one paper of three hours duration consisting of following sections will be conducted :-

Section-I : Electrical Engineering : 50 questions

Section-II : Electrical Engineering : 50 questions

Section-III : General Awareness : 20 questions

The questions will be so designed as to assess the ability of the candidates to apply their technical knowledge to the solution of the problems.

The syllabus for JTOs(Electrical) Paper will as given below.

SYLLABUS

SECTION-I - ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

1. EM Theory

Electric and magnetic fields. Gauss's Law and Amperes Law. Fields in dielectrics, conductors and magnetic materials. Maxwell's equations. Time varying fields. Plane-Wave propagating in dielectric and conducting media. Transmission lines.

2. Electrical Materials

Band Theory, Conductors, Semi-conductors. and Insulators. Superconductivity. Insulators for electrical and electronic applications. Magnetic materials. Ferro and ferri magnetism. Ceramics, Properties and applications. Hall effect alJd its applications. Special semi conductors.

3. Electrical Circuits

Circuits elements. Kirchoff's Laws. Mesh and nodal analysis. Network Theorems and applications. Natural response and forced response. Transient response and steady state response for arbitrary inputs. Properties of networks in terms of poles and zeros. Transfer function. Resonant circuits. Three phase circuits. Two-port networks. Elements of two-element network synthesis.

4. Measurements and Instrumentation

Units and Standards. Error analysis, measurement of current, Voltage, power, Power-factor and energy. Indicating instruments. Measurement of resistance, inductance, Capacitance and frequency. Bridge measurements. Electronic measuring instruments. Digital Voltmeter and frequency counter. Transducers and their applications to the measurement of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, flow-rate displacement, acceleration, noise level etc. Data acquisition systems. AID and D/A converters.

5. Control System

Mathematical modelling of physical systems. Block diagrams and signal flow graphs and their reduction. Time domain and frequency domain analysis of linear dynamical system. Errors for different type of inputs and stability criteria for feedback systems. Stability analysis using Routh-Hurwitz array, Nyquist plot and Bode plot. Root locus and Nicols chart and the estimation of gain and phase margin. Basic concepts of compensator design. State variable matrix and its use in system modelling and design. Sampled data system and performance of such a system with the samples in the error channel. Stability of sampled data system. Elements of non-linear control analysis. Control system components, electromechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic components.

SECTION-II - ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

1. Electrical Machines and Power Transformers

Magnetic Circuits - Analysis and Design of Power transformers. Construction and testing. Equivalent circuits. Losses and efficiency. Regulation. Auto-transformer, 3-phase transformer. Parallel operation.

Basic concepts in rotating machines. EMF, torque, basic machine types. Construction and operation, leakage losses and efficiency.

D.C. Machines. Construction, Excitation methods. Circuit models. Armature reaction and commutation. Characteristics and performance analysis. Generators and motors. Starting and speed control. Testing, Losses and efficiency.

Synchronous Machines. Construction. Circuit model. Operating characteristics and performance analysis. Synchronous reactance. Efficiency. Voltage regulation. Salient-pole machine, Parallel operation. . tiunting. Short circuit transients.

Induction Machines. Construction. Principle of operation. Rotating fields. Characteristics and performance analysis. Determination of circuit model. Circle diagram. Starting and speed control.

Fractional KW motors. Single-phase synchronous and induction motors.

2. Power systems

Types of Power Stations, Hydro, Thermal and Nuclear Stations. Pumped storage plants. Economics and operating factors.

Power transmission lines. Modeling and performance characteristics. Voltage control. Load flow studies. Optimal power system operation. Load frequency control. Symmetrical short circuit analysis. ZBus formulation. Symmetrical Components. Per Unit representation. Fault analysis. Transient and steady-state stability of power systems. Equal area criterion.

Power system Transients. Power system Protection Circuit breakers. Relays. HVDC transmission.

3. Analog and Digital Electronics and Circuits

Semiconductor device physics, PN junctions and transistors, circuit models and parameters, FET, Zener, tunnel, Schottky, photo diodes and their applications, rectifier circuits, voltage regulators and multipliers, switching behavior of diodes and transistors.

Small signal amplifiers, biasing circuits, frequency response and improvement, multistage amplifiers and feed-back amplifiers, D.C.

amplifiers, Oscillators. Large signal amplifiers, coupling methods, push pull amplifiers, operational amplifiers, wave shaping circuits. Multivibrators and flip-flops and their applications. Digital logic gate families, universal gates-combination circuits for arithmetic and logic operational, sequential logic circuits. Counters, registers, RAM and ROMs.

4. Microprocessor

Microprocessor architecture-Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Micro-processors in power system.

5. Communication Systems

Types of modulation; AM, FM and PM. Demodulators. Noise and bandwidth considerations. Digital communication systems. Pulse code modulation and demodulation. Elements of sound and vision broadcasting. Carrier communication. Frequency division and time division multiplexing, Telemetry system in power engineering.

6. Power Electronics

Power Semiconductor devices. Thyristor. Power transistor, GTOs and

MOSFETS. Characteristics and operation. AC to DC Converters; 1phase and 3-phase DC to DC Converters; AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors; switched capacitor networks.

Inverters; single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

SECTION-III - GENERAL ABILITY TEST

The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of general English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Tele Communications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.

BSNL JTO 2009 Mode of selection and nature of Question Paper

2009-02-16T10:15:00.001-08:00

The mode of selection is through an All India Competitive Examination. The examination will be of three hours duration with one Question Paper containing the following three sections:-

For JTOs(Telecom)

Section-I : Engineering stream : 50 questions

Section-II : Engineering stream : 50 questions

Section-III : General Ability Test : 20 questions

For JTOs(Electrical)

Section-I : Electrical Engineering stream : 50 questions

Section-II : Electrical Engineering stream: 50 questions

Section-III : General Awareness : 20 questions

For JTOs (Civil)

Section-I : Civil Engineering stream : 50 questions

Section-II : Civil Engineering stream : 50 questions

Section-III : General Ability Test : 20 questions

The Question Paper will be fully objective type with multiple options as answers to each question. The standard of paper in engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Examination of an Indian University.

However, there would be no separate time fixed for attempting the separate sections. Detailed syllabus for JTOs(Telecom), JTOs(Civil) and JTOs(Electrical) appear at Annexures ‘B’ , ‘C’ and ‘D’ respectively.

Educational Qualifications - BSNL JTO 2009

2009-02-16T10:11:00.000-08:00

3.2.1. JTO(Telecom)

Applicant must possess as on 31.12.2009, Bachelor of Engineering/Bachelor of Technology or equivalent Engineering degree in any of the following disciplines from a recognized engineering college/university:

i. Telecommunication,

ii. Electronics,

iii. Radio,

iv. Computer,

v. Electrical.

vi. Information Technology

Candidates appearing in the final year degree examination may also apply provided they possess the required educational qualification by 31.12.2009.

3.2.2. JTO(Civil)

Applicant must possess as on 31.12.2009, Bachelor of Engineering, Bachelor of Technology or equivalent in Civil Engineering from a recognized Institution/University.

Candidates appearing in the final year degree examination may also apply provided they possess the required educational qualification by 31.12.2009

3.2.3. JTO(Electrical)

Applicant must possess as on 31.12.2009, Bachelor of Engineering, Bachelor of Technology or equivalent in Electrical Engineering from a recognized Institution/University.

Candidates appearing in the final year degree examination may also apply provided they possess the required educational qualification by 31.12.2009

BSNL's Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers 2009

2009-02-16T09:41:00.000-08:00

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. [BSNL] will recruit about 3945 [subject to variation depending on the availability of vacancies] Junior Telecom Officers through an open competitive examination to be held on 21.06.2009 on All India basis, as per the details given below:-

Get complete details with application form in Word Format